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HOT...All alleged
Biblical miracles can now be explained as naturally occuring events
with nothing supernatural involved.
Especially, Old Testament "miracles" can be so explained. The Keys
To The Kingdom's publication: The Theology Of Jubilee Ethics presents the
evidence that these, and others, alleged Biblical miracles were naturally
occurring events:
The Middle ages Schoolman William of Ockham, 1288-1344 , more correctly spelled Occham, (Occham=Oak Haven, was a tiny village just SW of London) was especially noted for stressing this point. Which principle of logic came to be known as Ockham's Razor. Ockham's Razor was so devastingly effective in the Scholastic debates that William also became known as the " invinceable doctor".
Ockham's Razor applied to the question of validity of alleged Biblical miracles, could be put this way: If ordinary natural causes could account for what took place, then it is unacceptable to suppose there had been supernatural intervention. The supernatural cannot be proven nor is it necessary to explain alleged Biblical "miracles". William would not say miracles cannot happen. But when natural causes are sufficient explaiation, then supposition there had been supernatural intervention can be suspended.
EXAMPLES:
The Bethlehem "star" was not some strange illumination in the sky. It was Jesus himself.
The "Noah's ark" said to be on Mt. Ararat is probably only a high altitude barn.
The 10 Exodus miracles: The Mt. Aetna volcano was erupting about then and could possibly darken the sky for three days. Modern scientists say that a strong West wind can, and has in the past a few times, lowered the water level of the Lake of Weeds by as much as 12 feet. So that people could walk across. Yes, Exodus specifies a strong East wind. Plagues of locusts, toads, and gnats still occur naturally. So there need be nothing strangely miraculous about them in Exodus times! Red tide naturally happens in the sea, and strong tides, possibly augmented by Mt. Aetna's eruption, might push red plankton up the Nile. Causing a red color, killing fish, giving off foul oder and making the water temporarily undrinkable. The "Passover" night? Could costumed thugs have roamed about that night doing horrible things? The "voice from heaven" is said by the gospel of John to be only thunder. Note that John 5:37 flatly contradicts the O.T. Moses getting the Law on Mt. Sinai story: "Ye (Jews) have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape".
"Walking on water": A likely sequence should explain: The Egyptian god Osiris was said to have walked on water. It came to be so that Jesus had to seem equal to Moses and Osiris. There is said to be a sand bar in Lake Galilee. Suppose disciples making a crossing in a dark stormy night and with visibility poor and not knowing how near the shore is, suddenly see Jesus striding toward them. He could be walking on sand bottom covered by an inch of water. Compare Jn.6:21 "and immediately they were at the land".
Elijah's "fire": In places naptha seeps to the surface, some of which places still are places of eternal fire. Greeks knew naptha and might have used it in their "Greek fire" weapon. Suppose Elijah's "water" was really naptha needing only a spark to ignite it!
Joshua's "long day" was explained as possible by no less an authority than Sir Isaac Newton.
"Fallen angels" could be the former planet Marduk. Sumerians knew a planet we no longer have: the planet Marduk. Shattered remains of which may now be our asteroid belt. It could be that a meteor struck Marduk, breaking it in half, and driving half into an orbit that hasn't yet brought it back. It would be trailed by glowing shattered smaller parts. Observers standing on the earth would see with their eyes "The prince of darkness" and 1/3 of the lights of the sky was being cast out of the visible heavens into the outer darkness.
"Multiplying the loaves" could simply be group sharing. As the plates were passed, more and more came out of concealment.
I have more trouble with New Testament miracles of healing. Such as, a withered arm restored, the blind seeing and the like. But WHICH Christ was doing it? One healing, that of Veronica, Matt.9-20, was commemorated by a bronze statue of Jesus at her house. Which statue was visited by the Church historian Eusebius. One of the features was a sculptured herb was shown which could possibly be the actual medicine the real Jesus used in this case. If medicine was used in this case, why not always--- with the real Jesus, that is? The real Jesus abhored miracle working, saying to miracle workers, "Depart from me, I never knew you!". But Paul's phoney "Christ": which is untrue fiction anyway, had no such qualms!
But since Jesus performed no miracles in England, Persia, or India, I choose to think the real Jesus also performed none in Palestine either. It was Paul's phoney "Christ" working "miracles"!
ABOUT MIRACLES
George Bernard Shaw pointed out that to a very considerable extent Biblical miracles are irrelevant:
"If it could be proved today that not one of the miracles of Jesus actually occurred, that proof would not invalidate a single one of his didactic utterances; and conversely, if it could be proved that not only did the miracles actually occur, but that he had wrought a thousand other miracles a thousand times more wonderful, not a jot of weight would be added to his doctrine."
Correct! If sayings are true, then they are true anyhow no matter who speaks them, and miracle has nothing to do with whether they're true. So we just don't need alleged Biblical miracles! Except, the Bibleoliter (mistakenly) believes he cannot tell what's true or not, and therefore is very dependent on miracle to establish authority. He reasons that if Jesus performs miracles, then Jesus must be divine. And if divine, then his pronouncements must automatically be infallible. So you don't need to do any thinking or understanding about them, and don't dare question. And renders himself almost impossible to educate! And, please notice, that the real Jesus called miracle workers and (miracle lovers) to be evil workers: See Luke 13: Jesus says to miracle workers, "I never knew you" and, "depart from me, all you workers of iniquity". Now--- shall we have the real Jesus to be calling miracle workers to be evil workers and then have Jesus to be the head miracle worker and thus the great evil one?
Why is miracle working iniquity? Because nature is God's way and the miracle worker is commanding nature to be un-natural. And for God to be un-God like.
Again at Luke 11:29 Jesus is saying it's an evil generation that seeks a sign (miracle). That there would be NO sign except that of Jonah. But if we now know the presumed resurrection was instead a natural revival of someone never fully dead, then there were no New Testament healing miracles at all!
ABOUT BIBLICAL "PROPHCIES"
Ockham's Razor also applies to so-called Biblical prophecies
because a supernaturally ability to forecast the future would be a miracle.
The Keys To The Kingdom Church strongly contends that there are no valid
Biblical
prophecies at all. None. And in the book The Theology
Of Jubilee Economics is a list of alleged Biblical "prophecies" which Ockham's
Razor reduces to common ordinary events. So for brevity here in this
web-site
only one demonstration of false prophecy shall be presented.
See the book for numerous others. Let's look at Joel 3:1.
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A while back, I was advertising like this:
If I could prove to you that ALL presumed Biblical prophecies,
without exception ,are invalid,
would you be interested?
If I can show you that the real Jesus of Nazareth performed
no miracles at all himself,
and called those who "prophecy in his Name" and "miracle" workers
to be iniquity workers,
would you be interested?
New Testament Gospels, insist on "Belief" but novice Churchmen
suppose they are therefore commanded to "believe" in a miracle worker "Christ".
But since the teal Jesus performed no miracles himself, and ordered
those who prophecy and miracle workers to "Depart from me,
I never knew you": then nearly all Churchmen are converted to the
wrong "Christ". Which
fake "Christ" never existed and could not be the answer to anything.
The scholastic concept known as Occham's razor
requires that if a Biblical event can
be explained by natural causes, it is not permissible to argue for
supernatural intervention.
Therefore, since I can and do, one by one, explain every supposed
"Biblical miracle",
and alleged "prophecy", then it is "truth that sets us free".
The two New Testament Christs can be separated by seeing which
one does miracles
and "prophecies" and which one does not, But there are also several
other tests which
allow us to separate the real Jesus from the fake "Christ".
I show you how.
The great glad tidings is that the real
Jesus was King, not sin-forgiver, bringing
economic sanity and prosperity to the people of his kingdom on earth
as it is in heaven.
Check out his evangel and see!
For 365 academic pages crammed with information standard
preachers do not want you to
ask or to find out: send $20.00 to:
The Keys To The Christian Church
2521 Deer Run Road
St. Augustine, Florida 32084
Satisfaction guaranteed!
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And one response came from someone who had written a book claiming
validity for numerous specific
Biblical "prophecies". But would not send $20 unless I would
first show Qckham's Razor would invalidate
some Biblical "prophecy" I asked him which he considered the
most invulnrable? And he chose Joel 3:1 & 2.
I replied:
The dating of Joel is of highest importance in this matter, but the dateing has little to go on. No kings or other features of verifiable date are given in the text. However, in the Abington Bible Commentary, the majority of scholars consider Joel to have been in Babylon just prior to Ezra's return 70 years after the 586BC conquest by Nebucanezzar.
SO: My hunch is that Joel is well aware Jews opened Babylon's gates to Cyrus the Persian, and Jews are expecting as reward some Jews shall be allowed to return to Jerusalem and build a temple dedicated to Cyrus.
In the Abington Bible Commentary, scholars are almost unaminous in the opinion that Joel's Day of the Lord or whatever refers to Ezra's return from Babylon to Jerusalem. The present day Palestinian association with Joel 3:1+ is a johnny-come-lately notion. Here, in my opinion, we again encounter The Dishonest Man ajusting truth in history to fit his personal preferences.
In the New Testament we find Apostle Peter making the same mistake. Thinking because Jesus was becoming King, Joel 3 was being "fullfilled" and a wonderous future was immediately at hand. Not so.
Occam's razor would insist that since normal, natural, causes fully explain Joel's exuberance, that no justification can be allowed for presuming Supernatural intervention.
Additionally, if the dating details were fully known, I would not be surprised if Joel 3:1 & 2 is written AFTER the return to Jerusalem from Babylon. And Joel is "predicting" something already accomplished in his own past. Most scholars insist the so-called "prophecies" of Daniel are written centuries AFTER the historical events took place. Copying Joel's technique of forecasting what already was history perhaps?
Although this wrinkle is speculative, still events COULD have happened that way. And so again, to my thinking, Occham's razor disqualifies any unnecesary presumption of supernatural intervention.
Supernatural intervention can be believed in if one wishes, BUT IS INCAPABLE OF PROOF. To my way of thinking such belief is only willful self-deception.
Argueing against present day application of Joel 3:1+ versus
a 6th century fit are such in context items as:
1: In what present day goings on do we observe "a boy given for
a harlot and sold a girl for wine that they may drink"? 2: In what
way has modern day Gaza taken (or stolen) the gold and silver of the temple
of the Jews and placed the loot in their own temples? Babylon
did that in 586BC, yes, but tell me how present day Gaza has done so?
Now, I am not an uneducatable know-it-all. If I've goofed,
i wish to find that out and correct my understanding. So feel free
to bash away. Bashing with Bible AUTHORITY will do you no good. I'll
only respond by showing there
ihere is no weapon to bash with. The basher's hand is empty.
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My opponent said fullfillment Joel 3:1 prophecy was taking place
in the Middle East now
and was backed up by God having scattered the Jews world-wide.
____________________________________________________________________________
I answered:
I understand your opinions. But Joel 3:2 does not find fulfillment in the historical events related to the return of Jews from the Babylonian Exile. The Babylonians never really scattered the people of Judah - they exiled them, and some went to Egypt and many went to Babylon, but there was no true scattering. That came later in history.
A side issue worth noting is that when King Josiah's reforms
were bringing prosperity to Jersalem, Jeremiah
was "prophesying" Jerusalem would last forever. Does this
remind you of Joel's "prophecy? Like Joel, Jeremiah was not foretelling
the long distant future but instead referring to developments in his own
time/ And most likely "predicting" something ALREADY accomplished
and at least in part in his own past. Stock market speculators do
it every day But soon after Jeremiah "prophecied", Babylon
was destroying everything in Jerusalem and deporting Jerusalem's upper
class to Bablonia. And the remains of Jerusalem's army was compelling
the remainng lower class population, against their will, to go to Egypt
for protection. For centuries Jerusalemites had rejoiced in supposed
"Chosen People" status as "proven" by God having "delivered"= aided escape
from Egypt. Now in the utmost humiliation Jerusalemites were "delivered"
only if they had to return to Egypt. In his own life-time Jeremiah
saw his own "prophecy" disgraced. It had not been supernaturally
given foresight. It was only his wishing getting aired.
Much later, this:
Hello again and thank you for your in-put on Occham's razor. I note several points in your reply which I regard as factually incorrect. but hasten to reassure you I shall study your comments to perhaps learn whatever. I am not unteachable. We may have to agree to disagree about whether Occham's razor totally disqualifies Joel as a prophet. I say, undoubetly and unquestionally, automatically, that the Razor obviously does that: disqualify him. Period. I don't get why this is not clear to you. BUT, shall we move on?
For brevity, I'll confine myself to 3:2.
For 2,500 years or so, there never has been an end of the world
"gathering of nations" at the valley of Jehosofat. And still is not.
All the present Muslem world of nations has become united against
Zionist Jews and their stooge
U.S. But they ARE NOT gathering at valley of Jehosofat.
All the European nations are ever increasingly wary of being sucked into
the bottomless pit of siding with Zionist Jews who are the tail that wags
the U.S. dog. And
likewise. European nations and the Uited Nations ARE NOT gathering
with their army at the valley of Jehosofat.
Wars are NOT fought that way any more anyhow. Cowerdly U.S. can shoot from hundreds of miles away or ever across oceans. Or shoot from high-flying aircraft or even from un-manned drones.
So. in my opinion, it is quite unrealistic to think 3:2 is being "fulfilled" now or ever to be. AGAIN, Occham's Razor wins.
Since the dividing and scattering was something commonly done by warring victors, then no supernatural input was required. Supernatural input cannot be required and cannot be logically justified and ancient historical events are completely explained otherwise quite naturally. Therefore, in regard to Joel 3: 1 & 2, Occham's Razor prevails. As for modern times---it is just Zionist Jews trying to MAKE it look like Joel "prophecy" is being fulfilled. But again, no supernatural input is called for. SO, we have in these days in "Israel", an entire nation of FALSE prophets. Incidentally, Biblical Israelites were always a separate people. Israelites were never Jews and Jews were never Israelites. More FALSEHOOD.
END OF FREEBEE.
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